Wednesday 15 May 2013

NTSE STAGE 2 ( 2013) SOCIAL SCIENCE QUESTIONS WITH ANSWER KEY



Original questions with Answer key
SOCIAL SCIENCE - STAGE 2 (2013)


61.        From about 13th century to the time of the French Revolution sumptuary laws were expected to be followed strictly to:
            (1)  Regulate the behaviour of the royalty.                
            (2)  Regulate the income of people by social rank    
            (3) Control the behaviour of those considered social inferiors                          
            (4) Provide religious sanctity to social behaviour

62.        Choose the correct response from the given options.
            On 3rd March 1933 the famous Enabling Act was passed to:                            
            (a) establish dictatorship in Germany.                      
            (b) give Hitler the power to rule by decree
            (c) ban all trade unions
            (d) ban all political parties and their affiliates
            (1)  Only a and b are correct                                     (2) only c and d are correct
            (3) a, b and c are correct                                         (4) only d is correct

63.        Enclosures in England were seen as:
            (1)  hindrance to agricultural expansion and crop rotation.
            (2)  hindrance to commercialization of agriculture.
            (3)  necessary to make long-term investment on land, agriculture and to plan crop rotation to improve the soil.
            (4)  necessary to protect the interests of those who depended on the commons for their survival.

64.        The Balkans, which was a serious source of nationalist tension in Europe after 1871, was a region comprising of:
            (1) Romania, Germany, Poland, Bulgaria.                 
            (2) Romania, Prussia, Greece, Croatia and Serbia.   
            (3) Serbia, Austria, Bulgaria, Slovakia and Poland.   
            (4) Serbia, Bulgaria, Greece, Cro4tia, Romania.

65.        What was Rinderpest?     
            (1)  A disease of cattle plagues that spread in Africa in the 1890s.                   
            (2) Bubonic plague which spread in the region of Maharashtra in the l890s.       
            (3) A type of cholera that spread in Assam in the I890s.                                   
            (4) A devastating bird disease that was imported to Italy from British Asia through chicken meat.

66.        Which of the following is a correct match?               
            (1) Rashsundari Debi        – Istri Dharma Vichar
            (2) Ram Chadda               – Amar Jiban
            (3) Kashibaba                   – Chote Aur Bade ka Sawaal
            (4) Sudarshan Chakra        –  Gulamgiri

67.        Printing created possibilities of wider circulation of ideas. Who of the following hailed printing as the ultimate gift of God?                              
            (1)  Martin Luther                                                     (2) Menocchio
            (3) Roman Catholic Church                                       (4) Gutenberg

68.        The forest Act of 1878 divided forests into:             
            (1) reserved and protected forests                           (2) protected and village forests
            (3) bio-sphere reserves and wild life sanctuaries        (4) reserved, protected and village forests

69.        Consider the following statements and identify the correct response from the options given thereafter:
            Statement I: Hitler said ‘In my state the mother is the most important citizen’
            Statement II: In Nazi Germany while boys were taught to be aggressive, muscular and steel hearted; girls were told that they had to become good mothers.                  
            (1)  Statement I is true but statement II is false.        
            (2) Both statements I and statement II are true but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I.
            (3) Both the statements are False.
            (4) Both statements I and statement II are true and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I.





70.        Consider the following statements and choose the correct response from the options given thereafter:
            Statement I: The major cricket tournament of colonial India, the ‘Quadrangular’ did not represent regions but religious communities.
            Statement II: The victory of the ‘Hindus’ in the ‘Quadrangular’ cricket tournament in 1923 was equated by a cricket fan with Gandhiji’s war on ‘untouchability’.                     
            (1) Statement I is true but statement II is false.
            (2) Statement I is false but statement II is true
            (3) Both statements I and statement II are true and II is correct explanation of statement I
            (4) Both statements I and statement II are true but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I.

71.        Match the following columns :
Column A
Column B
(I)
Ambedkar established the Depressed Classes Association
(A)
December, 1929
(II)
Gandhiji began the Civil Disobedience Movement
(B)
August, 1930
(III)
Gandhiji ended the Civil Disobedience Movement
(C)
March, 1930
(IV)
Congress adopted the demand for ‘Purna Swaraj’
(D)
March, 1931
            (1)  (I) – (C), (II) – (D), (III) – (B), (IV) – (A)                   (2) (I) – (B), (II) – (C), (III)– (D), (IV) – (A)
            (3) (I) – (C), (II) – (A), (III) – (B), (IV) – (D)                    (4) (I) – (D), (II) – (C), (III) – (B), (IV) – (A)

72.        Consider the following statements and choose the correct response from the options given thereafter:
            Statement I: The Act of Union 1707 led to the formation of the “United Kingdom of Great Britain”. Statement II: The British parliament was henceforth dominated by its English members.              
            (1)  Both statements I and statement II are false
            (2) Both statements I and statement II are true and statement II is the result of statement I.
            (3) Statement I is true but statement II is false
            (4) Both statements I and statement II are true but statement II is not a result of statement I.

73.        Consider the following statements and choose the correct response from the options given thereafter:
            Statement I: Traders and travelers introduced new crops to the land they travelled.
            Statement II: Noodles most likely travelled from China through Arab traders to Sicily.
            Statement III: Potato reached the West through travelers and became the staple diet of the poor.           
            (1)  Statement I and statement III are true.                
            (2) Statement II and statement III are true.                 
            (3) All three statements are true                               
            (4) Statement I and statement II are true.

74.        Assertion (A): Gandhijis idea of satyagraha emphasised on the power of truth and the need to search for truth.
            Reasoning (R): Gandhiji believed that a satyagrahi could win the battle by appealing to the conscience of the oppressor.
            Select the correct option from the given alternatives.
            (1) A is true and R is false.                                                                             
            (2) Both A and R are true but R not the correct explanation of A.
            (3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
            (4) Both A and R are false.

75.        Assertion (A): The Civil Disobedience Movement was different from the Non-cooperation Movement.
            Reason (R): People in the Civil Disobedience Movement were asked not only to refuse cooperation with the British but also to break colonial laws. Select the correct option from the given alternatives. —
            (1) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
            (2) Both A and R are false.
            (3) A is false but R is true.
            (4) Both A and Rare true and R is the correct explanation of A.
           
76.        Assertion (A): Coal is a fossil fuel.
            Reason(R): It is formed due to compression of inorganic material over millions of years.
            Select the correct option from the given alternatives.
            (1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) explain (A)
            (2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) does not explain (A)
            (3) (A) is true and (R) is false
            (4) (A) is false and (R) is true

77.        Assertion (A): The sun rises in Arunachal Pradesh about two hours before Gujarat.
            Reason(R): Arunachal Pradesh is on higher latitude than Gujarat. Select the correct option from the given alternatives.
            (1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) explain (A)
            (2) Both (A) and (R), are true, but (R) does not explain (A)
            (3) (A) is true and (R) is false
            (4) (A) is false and (R) is true

78.        Assertion (A): In India, east coast has more seaports than the west coast.
            Reason(R): The east coast is broader and is an example of emergent coast. Select the correct option from the given alternatives.
            (1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) explain (A)
            (2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) does not explain (A)
            (3) (A) is true and (R) is false
            (4) (A) is false and (R) is true

79.        Which pie diagram represents India’s age composition in 2001?



80.        Assertion (A) : The north western parts of India receive rainfall in winter.
            Reason (R) : The winter rainfall in India occurs due to North East monsoon.
            Select the correct option from the given alternatives.
            (1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) explain (A)       
            (2) Both (A) and (R), are true, but (R) does not explain (A)
            (3) (A) is true and (R) is false
            (4) (A) is false and (R) is true

81.        Which four major ports of India lie on the Golden Quadrilateral?
            (1) Chennai, Tuticorin, Mangalore, Marmagao
            (2) Kolkata, Chennai, Mangalore, Mumbai
            (3) Marmagao, Mumbai, Kandla, ,Mangalore
            (4) Kolata, Mumbai, Vishakhapatanam, Chennai
           


82.        Match the fishing ports indicated on the map of India (I, H, III and IV) with their respective names.
            A. Kakinada
            B. Alappuzha
            C. Porbandar
            D. Tuticorin


            (1) II-A, III-B, I-C, IV-D                                              (2) I-A, II-B, III-D, IV- C
            (3) I-C, II-B, III-A, IV-D                                               (4) I-D, II-B, III-A, IV-C

83.        Which figure relates the trend of population Growth rate 1951-2001?
            
84.        Assertion (A): The Himalayan ranges show change in vegetation from tropical to tundra.
            Reason (R): In mountainous area with increase in altitude there is corresponding decrease in temperature, which leads to change in vegetation types.
            Select the correct option from the given alternatives.
            (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explain (A).
            (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not explain (A).
            (3) (A) is true and (R) is false.
            (4) (A) is false and (R) is true.

85.        Which of the following methods are used to restrict soil erosion?
            A. Ploughing along contour lines
            B. Strip cropping
            C. Jhumming
            D. Mixed farming
            (1) A and B                                                              (2) A and C
            (3) B and D                                                              (4) B and C

86.        Assertion (A): Although only the southern part of India lies in tropical region, the whole of India has tropical climate.
            Reason (R): Himalaya mountain ranges protect it from the northerly cold winds.   Select the correct option from the given alternatives.
            (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explain (A)
            (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not explain (A)
            (3) (A) is true and (R) is false.
            (4) (A) is false and (R) is hue.

87.        What does the zig-zag line indicate on the map of India?

            (1) Advancement summer monsoon on 1st June.
            (2) Line dividing tropical evergreen and deciduous forest.
            (3) Water divide between east and west flowing rivers.
            (4) Line dividing annual rainfall above and below 100 cm.

88.        Which of the following feature has similar geological structure with Meghalaya, Karbi Anglong plateau and Cachar Hills?
            (1) Aravalli Range              (2) Purvachal Hills            (3) Shiwaliks                     (4) Chotanagpur Plateau

89.        Assertion (A): Sex Ratio in India is low.
            Reason (R) : Indian society has been unfavourable to females.
            Select the correct option from the given alternatives.                                       
            (1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) explain (A)
            (2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) does not explain (A)
            (3) (A) is true and (R) is false
            (4) (A) is false and (R) is true

90.        A pilot takes off from an airport at 15°S latitude and flies 55° due North. What latitude the pilot ha reached?
            (1)  55°N                          (2) 40°N                           (3) 70° N                           (4) 15°N

91.        Which of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism?                            
            (1) The Constitution creates a strong Centre.
            (2) The Constitution provides for a single judiciary
            (3) The Constitution provides for a common All India Services.
            (4) The Constitution provides equal representation to the States in the Upper House of Parliament.

92.        Which of these features is not a guiding value of the Indian Constitution?         
            (1) No external power can dictate to the Government of India
            (2) The head of the State is a hereditary position
            (3) All people are equal before law.
            (4) Citizens have complete freedom to follows any religion

93.        According to Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, which of the following is ‘heart and soul’ of our Constitution?   
            (1) The Preamble 
            (2) Right to Equality         
            (3) Right against Exploitation
            (4) Right to Constitutional Remedies

94.        Democracy is considered to be better than other forms of government. Which of the following statements support this claim?                      
            A. It is a more accountable form of government.
            B. It improves the quality of decision making
            C. It ensures rapid economic development of citizens
            D. It enhances the dignity of citizens
            (1) A, B and D                  (2) A and C                      (3) A, B and C                   (4) B, C and D

95.        The Constitution. of India was amended in 1992 to make the third-tier of democracy more effective. As a result, at least one-third of all positions in the local bodies are reserved for women. This is because          
            (1)  Women are good at managing resources.          
            (2)  Although women constitute nearly half of the population, they have inadequate representation in decision-making bodies.
            (3)  We have many powerful women leaders.                                                    
            (4)  Women are obedient and would follow the constitutional provisions well.

96.        In which of the following economies are people more of a resource?                
            (1) Country A with 78% of the working age population illiterate and with very low life expectancy
            (2) Country B with 10% of the working age population illiterate and with high life expectancy        
            (3) Country C with 60% of people in the working age illiterate, but with high life expectancy          
            (4) Country D with only 10% of population is the working age illiterate, but has very low life expectancy.

97.        Which of the following statements is true of agriculture in Indian economy between 1973 and 2003?         
            (1)  The sectorial share of agriculture in employment has decreased far more than its share on total output.
            (2) The sectorial share of agriculture in total output has decreased, but its share in employment has increased.    
            (3) The sectorial share of agriculture in total output has increased, but its share in employment has decreased.    
            (4)  The sectorial share of agriculture in output has decreased far more than its share in total employment.

98.        Which of the following can be considered as Foreign Direct Ins investment made in India?          
            A. The TATAs acquire Corus steel plant abroad. r
            B. Mr. Donald, an American citizen, acquires 100 shares of an Indian listed company.
            C. The remittances sent by an Indian doctor in Dubai back to his hometown in Kerala.
            D. The US multinational Google opens its full-fledged unit at Gurgaon, Haryana.
            (1)  (A) and (D)                 (2) (A) and (B)                  (3) (D) Only                       (4) (B) and (C)

99.        We accept paper money as a medium of exchange because                           
            (1)  It has gold backing                                           
            (2) the law legalizes it       
            (3) Reserve Bank of India has precious metals against which it prints notes      
            (4) Everyone else accepts it

100.      Which of the following refers to trade barrier in the context of WTO?                
            I. Restrictions on domestic trade
            II. Not allowing companies to do foreign trade beyond specific quantity
            III. Restrictions on the export and import of goods
            IV. Restrictions on the price fixed by companies
            (1)  (I), (II) and (III)             (2) (II), (III) and (IV)           
            (3) (III) and (IV)                  (4) (I), (II) and (IV)


ANSWER KEY:
61         (3)                    62         (1)                    63         (3)                    64         (4)                    65(1)
66         (3)                    67         (1)                    68         (4)                    69         (4)                    70(4)
71         (2)                    72         (2)                    73         (4)                    74         (3)                    75(4)
76         (3)                    77         (2)                    78         (4)                    79         (4)                    80(2)
81         (4)                    82         (1)                    83         (4)                    84         (1)                    85(1)
86         (1)                    87         (3)                    88         (4)                    89         (1)                    90(3)
91         (4)                    92         (2)                    93         (4)                    94         (1)                    95(2)
96         (2)                    97         (4)                    98         (3)                    99         (2)                    100(2)

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