Original questions with Answer key
SOCIAL
SCIENCE - STAGE 2 (2013)
61. From
about 13th century to the time of the French Revolution sumptuary
laws were expected to be followed strictly to:
(1)
Regulate the behaviour of the royalty.
(2) Regulate the income of people by social rank
(3) Control the behaviour of those
considered social inferiors
(4) Provide religious sanctity to
social behaviour
62. Choose the correct response from the
given options.
On 3rd March 1933 the
famous Enabling Act was passed to:
(a)
establish dictatorship in Germany .
(b)
give Hitler the power to rule by decree
(c)
ban all trade unions
(d) ban all political parties and
their affiliates
(1) Only a and b are correct (2) only c
and d are correct
(3) a, b and c are correct (4)
only d is correct
63. Enclosures
in England
were seen as:
(1) hindrance
to agricultural expansion and crop rotation.
(2) hindrance
to commercialization of agriculture.
(3) necessary
to make long-term investment on land, agriculture and to plan crop rotation to
improve the soil.
(4) necessary
to protect the interests of those who depended on the commons for their
survival.
64. The
Balkans, which was a serious source of nationalist tension in Europe
after 1871, was a region comprising of:
(1) Romania ,
Germany , Poland , Bulgaria .
(2) Romania ,
Prussia , Greece , Croatia
and Serbia .
(3) Serbia ,
Austria , Bulgaria , Slovakia
and Poland .
(4) Serbia ,
Bulgaria , Greece , Cro4tia, Romania .
65. What
was Rinderpest?
(1)
A disease of cattle plagues that spread in Africa
in the 1890s.
(2) Bubonic plague which spread in
the region of Maharashtra in the l890s.
(3) A type of cholera that spread in
Assam in the I890s.
(4) A devastating bird disease that
was imported to Italy
from British Asia through chicken meat.
66. Which
of the following is a correct match?
(1) Rashsundari Debi – Istri Dharma Vichar
(2)
Ram Chadda – Amar Jiban
(3)
Kashibaba – Chote Aur
Bade ka Sawaal
(4)
Sudarshan Chakra – Gulamgiri
67. Printing
created possibilities of wider circulation of ideas. Who of the following
hailed printing as the ultimate gift of God?
(1)
Martin Luther (2)
Menocchio
(3) Roman Catholic Church (4)
Gutenberg
68. The forest Act of 1878 divided forests into:
(1)
reserved and protected forests (2) protected and
village forests
(3) bio-sphere reserves and wild life
sanctuaries (4) reserved, protected
and village forests
69. Consider the following statements and
identify the correct response from the options given thereafter:
Statement I: Hitler said ‘In my
state the mother is the most important citizen’
Statement II: In Nazi Germany
while boys were taught to be aggressive, muscular and steel hearted; girls were
told that they had to become good mothers.
(1) Statement I is true but statement II is
false.
(2)
Both statements I and statement II are true but statement II is not the correct
explanation of statement I.
(3)
Both the statements are False.
(4)
Both statements I and statement II are true and statement II is the correct
explanation of statement I.
70. Consider the following statements and
choose the correct response from the options given thereafter:
Statement I: The major cricket
tournament of colonial India ,
the ‘Quadrangular’ did not represent regions but religious communities.
Statement II: The victory of the
‘Hindus’ in the ‘Quadrangular’ cricket tournament in 1923 was equated by a
cricket fan with Gandhiji’s war on ‘untouchability’.
(1)
Statement I is true but statement II is false.
(2) Statement I is false but statement
II is true
(3) Both statements I and statement
II are true and II is correct explanation of statement I
(4)
Both statements I and statement II are true but statement II is not the correct
explanation of statement I.
71. Match the following columns :
|
Column A
|
Column B
|
||
|
(I)
|
Ambedkar established the Depressed
Classes Association
|
(A)
|
December, 1929
|
|
(II)
|
Gandhiji began the Civil Disobedience
Movement
|
(B)
|
August, 1930
|
|
(III)
|
Gandhiji ended the Civil Disobedience
Movement
|
(C)
|
March, 1930
|
|
(IV)
|
Congress adopted the demand for ‘Purna
Swaraj’
|
(D)
|
March, 1931
|
(1) (I) – (C), (II) – (D), (III) – (B), (IV) –
(A) (2) (I) – (B), (II) –
(C), (III)– (D), (IV) – (A)
(3)
(I) – (C), (II) – (A), (III) – (B), (IV) – (D) (4)
(I) – (D), (II) – (C), (III) – (B), (IV) – (A)
72. Consider the following statements and
choose the correct response from the options given thereafter:
Statement I: The Act of Union 1707 led
to the formation of the “United Kingdom of Great Britain”. Statement II: The British parliament was henceforth dominated by
its English members.
(1) Both statements I and statement II are false
(2)
Both statements I and statement II are true and statement II is the result of
statement I.
(3) Statement I is true but statement
II is false
(4) Both statements I and statement
II are true but statement II is not a result of statement I.
73. Consider the following statements and
choose the correct response from the options given thereafter:
Statement I: Traders and travelers
introduced new crops to the land they travelled.
Statement II: Noodles most
likely travelled from China
through Arab traders to Sicily .
Statement III: Potato reached
the West through travelers and became the staple diet of the poor.
(1) Statement I and statement III are true.
(2)
Statement II and statement III are true.
(3)
All three statements are true
(4)
Statement I and statement II are true.
74. Assertion (A): Gandhijis idea of satyagraha
emphasised on the power of truth and the need to search for truth.
Reasoning (R): Gandhiji believed that a satyagrahi could win the
battle by appealing to the conscience of the oppressor.
Select
the correct option from the given alternatives.
(1)
A is true and R is false.
(2)
Both A and R are true but R not the correct explanation of A.
(3)
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(4)
Both A and R are false.
75. Assertion (A): The Civil Disobedience
Movement was different from the Non-cooperation Movement.
Reason (R): People in the Civil Disobedience Movement were asked not
only to refuse cooperation with the British but also to break colonial laws. Select
the correct option from the given alternatives. —
(1)
Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(2)
Both A and R are false.
(3)
A is false but R is true.
(4)
Both A and Rare true and R is the correct explanation of A.
76. Assertion (A): Coal is a fossil fuel.
Reason(R): It is formed due to compression
of inorganic material over millions of years.
Select
the correct option from the given alternatives.
(1)
Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) explain (A)
(2)
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) does not explain (A)
(3)
(A) is true and (R) is false
(4)
(A) is false and (R) is true
77. Assertion (A): The sun rises in Arunachal
Pradesh about two hours before Gujarat .
Reason(R): Arunachal Pradesh is on higher latitude than Gujarat . Select the correct option from the given
alternatives.
(1)
Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) explain (A)
(2)
Both (A) and (R), are true, but (R) does not explain (A)
(3)
(A) is true and (R) is false
(4)
(A) is false and (R) is true
78. Assertion (A): In India , east coast has more seaports
than the west coast.
Reason(R): The east coast is broader and is an example of emergent coast. Select
the correct option from the given alternatives.
(1)
Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) explain (A)
(2)
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) does not explain (A)
(3)
(A) is true and (R) is false
(4)
(A) is false and (R) is true
79. Which
pie diagram represents India ’s
age composition in 2001?
80. Assertion (A) : The north western parts
of India
receive rainfall in winter.
Reason (R) : The winter rainfall in India
occurs due to North East monsoon.
Select
the correct option from the given alternatives.
(1)
Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) explain (A)
(2)
Both (A) and (R), are true, but (R) does not explain (A)
(3)
(A) is true and (R) is false
(4)
(A) is false and (R) is true
81. Which
four major ports of India
lie on the Golden Quadrilateral?
(1)
Chennai, Tuticorin, Mangalore, Marmagao
(2)
Kolkata, Chennai, Mangalore, Mumbai
(3)
Marmagao, Mumbai, Kandla, ,Mangalore
(4)
Kolata, Mumbai, Vishakhapatanam, Chennai
82. Match
the fishing ports indicated on the map of India (I, H, III and IV) with their
respective names.
A.
Kakinada
B.
Alappuzha
C.
Porbandar
D.
Tuticorin
(1)
II-A, III-B, I-C, IV-D (2)
I-A, II-B, III-D, IV- C
(3)
I-C, II-B, III-A, IV-D (4) I-D,
II-B, III-A, IV-C
83. Which
figure relates the trend of population Growth rate 1951-2001?
84. Assertion (A): The Himalayan ranges
show change in vegetation from tropical to tundra.
Reason (R): In mountainous area with increase in altitude there is
corresponding decrease in temperature, which leads to change in vegetation
types.
Select the correct
option from the given alternatives.
(1)
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explain (A).
(2)
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not explain (A).
(3)
(A) is true and (R) is false.
(4)
(A) is false and (R) is true.
85. Which
of the following methods are used to restrict soil erosion?
A.
Ploughing along contour lines
B.
Strip cropping
C.
Jhumming
D.
Mixed farming
(1)
A and B (2) A and
C
(3)
B and D (4) B
and C
86. Assertion (A): Although only the
southern part of India lies
in tropical region, the whole of India has tropical climate.
Reason (R): Himalaya mountain ranges protect it
from the northerly cold winds. Select
the correct option from the given alternatives.
(1)
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explain (A)
(2)
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not explain (A)
(3)
(A) is true and (R) is false.
(4)
(A) is false and (R) is hue.
87. What
does the zig-zag line indicate on the map of India ?
(1)
Advancement summer monsoon on 1st June.
(2)
Line dividing tropical evergreen and deciduous forest.
(3)
Water divide between east and west flowing rivers.
(4)
Line dividing annual rainfall above and below 100 cm.
88. Which of
the following feature has similar geological structure with Meghalaya, Karbi
Anglong plateau and Cachar Hills?
(1)
Aravalli Range (2) Purvachal
Hills (3) Shiwaliks (4) Chotanagpur Plateau
89. Assertion
(A): Sex Ratio in India
is low.
Reason (R) : Indian society has
been unfavourable to females.
Select
the correct option from the given alternatives.
(1)
Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) explain (A)
(2)
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) does not explain (A)
(3) (A) is true and (R) is false
(4) (A) is false and (R) is true
90. A pilot takes off from an airport at
15°S latitude and flies 55° due North. What latitude the pilot ha reached?
(1) 55°N (2)
40°N (3) 70° N (4) 15°N
91. Which of the following is not a feature
of Indian federalism?
(1)
The Constitution creates a strong Centre.
(2) The Constitution provides for a
single judiciary
(3) The Constitution provides for a
common All India Services.
(4) The Constitution provides equal
representation to the States in the Upper House of Parliament.
92. Which
of these features is not a guiding value of the Indian Constitution?
(1) No external power can dictate to
the Government of India
(2)
The head of the State is a hereditary position
(3)
All people are equal before law.
(4)
Citizens have complete freedom to follows any religion
93. According
to Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, which of the following is ‘heart and soul’ of our Constitution?
(1)
The Preamble
(2) Right to Equality
(3) Right against Exploitation
(4) Right to Constitutional Remedies
94. Democracy
is considered to be better than other forms of government. Which of the
following statements support this claim?
A.
It is a more accountable form of government.
B.
It improves the quality of decision making
C.
It ensures rapid economic development of citizens
D.
It enhances the dignity of citizens
(1)
A, B and D (2) A and C (3)
A, B and C (4) B, C and
D
95. The
Constitution. of India
was amended in 1992 to make the third-tier of democracy more effective. As a
result, at least one-third of all positions in the local bodies are reserved
for women. This is because
(1) Women are good at managing resources.
(2) Although
women constitute nearly half of the population, they have inadequate
representation in decision-making bodies.
(3) We
have many powerful women leaders.
(4) Women
are obedient and would follow the constitutional provisions well.
96. In
which of the following economies are people more of a resource?
(1) Country A with 78% of the
working age population illiterate and with very low life expectancy
(2) Country B with 10% of the
working age population illiterate and with high life expectancy
(3) Country C with 60% of people in
the working age illiterate, but with high life expectancy
(4) Country D with only 10% of
population is the working age illiterate, but has very low life expectancy.
97. Which
of the following statements is true of agriculture in Indian economy between
1973 and 2003?
(1)
The sectorial share of agriculture in employment has decreased far more
than its share on total output.
(2) The sectorial share of
agriculture in total output has decreased, but its share in employment has
increased.
(3) The sectorial share of
agriculture in total output has increased, but its share in employment has
decreased.
(4) The
sectorial share of agriculture in output has decreased far more than its share
in total employment.
98. Which of the following can be considered
as Foreign Direct Ins investment made in India ?
A.
The TATAs acquire Corus steel plant abroad. r
B.
Mr. Donald, an American citizen, acquires 100 shares of an Indian listed
company.
C.
The remittances sent by an Indian doctor in Dubai back to his hometown in Kerala.
D.
The US multinational Google opens its full-fledged unit at Gurgaon, Haryana.
(1) (A) and (D) (2)
(A) and (B) (3) (D) Only (4) (B) and (C)
99. We accept paper money as a medium of
exchange because
(1) It has gold backing
(2)
the law legalizes it
(3)
Reserve Bank of India
has precious metals against which it prints notes
(4)
Everyone else accepts it
100. Which of the following refers to trade
barrier in the context of WTO?
I. Restrictions on domestic
trade
II.
Not allowing companies to do foreign trade beyond specific quantity
III.
Restrictions on the export and import of goods
IV.
Restrictions on the price fixed by companies
(1) (I), (II) and (III) (2) (II), (III) and (IV)
(3)
(III) and (IV) (4) (I),
(II) and (IV)
ANSWER KEY:
61 (3) 62 (1) 63 (3) 64 (4) 65(1)
66 (3) 67 (1) 68 (4) 69 (4) 70(4)
71 (2) 72 (2) 73 (4) 74 (3) 75(4)
76 (3) 77 (2) 78 (4) 79 (4) 80(2)
81 (4) 82 (1) 83 (4) 84 (1) 85(1)
86 (1) 87 (3) 88 (4) 89 (1) 90(3)
91 (4) 92 (2) 93 (4) 94 (1) 95(2)
96 (2) 97 (4) 98 (3) 99 (2) 100(2)
a good paper...enjoying solving it
ReplyDeletethank you sir
ReplyDeleteMayank VQ
Thank you Sir
ReplyDeleteSaksham Consul
SBS X
Can you explain question 90
ReplyDelete